Free CMC Practice Test Questions

A 62-year-old male patient has recently undergone a transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR). Two days post-procedure, he develops acute shortness of breath, a systolic blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, and heavy murmurs are noted in the mitral valve area upon auscultation. What is the MOST LIKELY cause of these symptoms?

A 68-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room after experiencing a sudden onset of weakness on the right side of her body and difficulty speaking. She is diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke affecting the left hemisphere. Based on the latest guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A 70-year-old female patient is one month post-percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with drug-eluting stent placement. She presents to the cardiology clinic for a follow-up. Her current medications include aspirin, clopidogrel, lisinopril, and atorvastatin. She reports minor bleeding gums and occasional bruising but no significant bleeding events. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action regarding her antiplatelet therapy?

A 55-year-old female presents with a history of generalized fatigue, mild dyspnea on exertion, and occasional palpitations. Her vital signs are stable. Laboratory tests reveal elevated troponin levels, but her 12-lead ECG shows no ischemic changes. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of her elevated troponins?

A 48-year-old male patient is undergoing evaluation for peripheral artery disease (PAD). He reports claudication in his legs during physical activities and has a significant history of smoking. Based on recent advancements in vascular interventions, which of the following treatments is most appropriate for improving his symptoms and quality of life?

A 64-year-old male patient is brought to the ICU following aortic valve replacement surgery. Two days post-surgery, the patient becomes acutely confused and disoriented. Vital signs are stable, and there is no sign of infection. A CT scan reveals no acute pathology. Given these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step to address this patient's neurological complication?

A 72-year-old male recently underwent a successful heart transplant. Post-operatively, he is being monitored for signs of rejection and infection. On the fourth day post-surgery, he presents with fever, leukocytosis, and elevated C-reactive protein levels. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized to assess for transplant rejection?

A 49-year-old female is admitted to the ICU with altered mental status and a history of uncontrolled hypertension. Her CT scan reveals intracerebral hemorrhage with significant midline shift. Her BP is 200/110 mmHg, HR 85 bpm, and she is intubated for airway protection. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention to manage this patient's condition?

A 50-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about her cardiovascular health. She has a history of obesity and a sedentary lifestyle. She reports a family history of cardiovascular disease, with both parents having had heart attacks before the age of 65. Her blood pressure is consistently elevated, and her lipid profile shows elevated LDL cholesterol. Which of the following lifestyle modifications is MOST LIKELY to significantly reduce her risk of cardiovascular disease?

A 50-year-old female presents to the cardiology clinic for follow-up after being diagnosed with resistant hypertension. Her current therapy regimen includes an ACE inhibitor, a calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. Despite adherence, her blood pressure remains elevated at 160/95 mmHg. The healthcare provider is considering the addition of wearable technology to better monitor her cardiovascular health. Which of the following features of wearable technology would be most beneficial in managing her condition?

A 72-year-old male who recently underwent a right-sided carotid endarterectomy presents with acute left-sided weakness, facial droop, and slurred speech. His blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg. A CT scan shows no hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?